What eye prescription would be classified as "legally blind"?

I don't understand what 20/70 or 20/200 even mechanism. All I know is that my prescription for my left eye is 6.50 and my right eye is 7.00 and someone told me that manner that I'm legally blind. Is that true? And what is the prescription number to be classified as officially blind?

No--6.50 and 7.00 are rather large numbers, but if your glasses/contacts can correct you so that you can see 20/100 or better, you are not legally blind. Therefore, near isn't a dividing mark within terms of what make you legally blind or not.

Granted, if goggles didn't exist, you certainly would be properly blind--estimated 2.00-2.50 diopters of nearsightedness (and farsightedness as well, although sometimes they can compensate at distances, so they might own to have a sophisticated prescription than that) is enough to generate you see only 20/200. I cannot see 20/200 short my glasses near my -3.25 prescription, and that's still a lot smaller contained by magnitude than your 6.50 or 7.00.
20/70 routine that what "normal" eyes can see at 70 feet, you hold to be 20 feet away to see it the track they do. I believe it's around 20/150 that you are considered legally blind. Of course that's short corrective lenses. I'm pretty sure by now I'm legitimately blind without my contacts or specs.

Your prescription is different. It has profoundly more information in it so you can ask your optometrist sometime to explain to you what respectively number stands for.
For all that's holy DON'T DRIVE!
In North America and most of Europe, allowed blindness is defined as visual acuity (vision) of 20/200 (6/60) or smaller number in the better eye next to best correction possible. This means that a lawfully blind individual would have to stand 20 foot (6 m) from an object to see it next to the same level of clarity as a normally sighted character could from 200 feet (60 m).
Heartzablaze is pretty much right.

And, depending on pupil size, 20/200, "one tenth of majority vision", would only requirement an Rx of about -3.50.

You (and I, at over -10.00 ) would be officially blind IF and only if our delirium could not be improved by spectacles, contacts...
The strength of eyeglasses doesnt count at all.

So you are not properly blind unless 6/60 (20/200) is the best you can get. Fumbling around on wake wondering where you put your goggles doesn't count.

As an aside someone can be legally blind near very fitting vision, even 20/20, if they hold extremely restricted visual field. For example as may be caused beside retinitis pigmentosa.
The numbers that make up you prescription do not thing.
if any group of numbers, whatever they are, variety you see 20/100 or better you are not legally blind.
Legal blindness is related to two possible hallucination problems. 1) Visual acuity (clarity of vision) and 2) visual grazing land (how well you can see to the side). BUT, permissible blindness is based upon how powerfully your vision is WITH GLASSES OR CONTACTS BEING WORN. So the prescription strength of your eyeglasses or contact lenses is not relevant to whether you are legitimately blind or not. You could have a prescription of 25.00 or even more and as long as you can see clearly and hold good ocular field while wearing your eyeglasses or contacts then you would not be classified as justifiably blind. So to answer your last ask, there is NO prescription number that classifies one as individual legally blind.

The answers post by the user, for information simply, LasikAnswer.com does not guarantee the right and should not be considered medical advice, diagnosis or treatment recommendation.

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